Last Updated on October 29, 2019 by Admin
CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Online Form C
RSE -- Final Exam C
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RSE — Final Exam C
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?
Correct
Incorrect
As a packet traverses the network, the Layer 2 addresses will change at every hop as the packet is de-encapsulated and re-encapsulated, but the Layer 3 addresses will remain the same.
Hint
As a packet traverses the network, the Layer 2 addresses will change at every hop as the packet is de-encapsulated and re-encapsulated, but the Layer 3 addresses will remain the same.
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
1 pointsWhat is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?
Correct
Incorrect
When the ipv6 unicast-routing command is implemented on a router, it enables the router as an IPv6 router. Use of this command also assigns the router to the all-routers multicast group.
Hint
When the ipv6 unicast-routing command is implemented on a router, it enables the router as an IPv6 router. Use of this command also assigns the router to the all-routers multicast group.
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
1 pointsWhat is a characteristic of a static route that creates a gateway of last resort?
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A default static route is a route that matches all packets. It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route. A default static route is simply a static route with 0.0.0.0/0 as the destination IPv4 address. Configuring a default static route creates a gateway of last resort.
Hint
A default static route is a route that matches all packets. It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route. A default static route is simply a static route with 0.0.0.0/0 as the destination IPv4 address. Configuring a default static route creates a gateway of last resort.
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?
Correct
Incorrect
The C in a routing table indicates an interface that is up and has an IP address assigned. The S in a routing table signifies that a route was installed using the ip route command. Two of the routing table entries shown are static routes to a specific destination (the 10.17.2.0 network). The entry that has the S denoting a static route and [1/0] was configured using the next-hop address. The other entry (S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0) is a static route configured using the exit interface. The entry with the 0.0.0.0 route is a default static route which is used to send packets to any destination network that is not specifically listed in the routing table.
Hint
The C in a routing table indicates an interface that is up and has an IP address assigned. The S in a routing table signifies that a route was installed using the ip route command. Two of the routing table entries shown are static routes to a specific destination (the 10.17.2.0 network). The entry that has the S denoting a static route and [1/0] was configured using the next-hop address. The other entry (S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0) is a static route configured using the exit interface. The entry with the 0.0.0.0 route is a default static route which is used to send packets to any destination network that is not specifically listed in the routing table.
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2?
Correct
Incorrect
A nonrecursive route must have an exit interface specified from which the destination network can be reached. In this example 2001:db8:10:12::/64 is the destination network and R2 will use exit interface S0/0/0 to reach that network. Therefore, the static route would be ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0.
Hint
A nonrecursive route must have an exit interface specified from which the destination network can be reached. In this example 2001:db8:10:12::/64 is the destination network and R2 will use exit interface S0/0/0 to reach that network. Therefore, the static route would be ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
1 pointsA router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
Correct
Incorrect
OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, so the floating static route must have an administrative distance higher than 110. Because the target network is 172.16.32.0/19, that static route must use the network 172.16.32.0 and a netmask of 255.255.224.0.
Hint
OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, so the floating static route must have an administrative distance higher than 110. Because the target network is 172.16.32.0/19, that static route must use the network 172.16.32.0 and a netmask of 255.255.224.0.
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?
Correct
Incorrect
In this example the interface in the static route is incorrect. The interface should be the exit interface on R1, which is s0/0/0.
Hint
In this example the interface in the static route is incorrect. The interface should be the exit interface on R1, which is s0/0/0.
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
2 pointsCompared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)
Correct
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Static routes are manually configured on a router. Static routes are not automatically updated and must be manually reconfigured if the network topology changes. Thus static routing improves network security because it does not make route updates among neighboring routers. Static routes also improve resource efficiency by using less bandwidth, and no CPU cycles are used to calculate and communicate routes.
Hint
Static routes are manually configured on a router. Static routes are not automatically updated and must be manually reconfigured if the network topology changes. Thus static routing improves network security because it does not make route updates among neighboring routers. Static routes also improve resource efficiency by using less bandwidth, and no CPU cycles are used to calculate and communicate routes.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
1 pointsTo enable RIPv1 routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?
Correct
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RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol, meaning it will automatically convert the subnet ID that was entered into the classful address of 172.16.0.0 when it is displayed in the running configuration.
Hint
RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol, meaning it will automatically convert the subnet ID that was entered into the classful address of 172.16.0.0 when it is displayed in the running configuration.
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Question 11 of 50
11. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?
Correct
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In the R2 routing table, the route to reach network 10.10.0.0 is labeled with an administrative distance of 1, which indicates that this is a static route.
Hint
In the R2 routing table, the route to reach network 10.10.0.0 is labeled with an administrative distance of 1, which indicates that this is a static route.
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
1 pointsWhich route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?
Correct
Incorrect
If the best match is a level 1 ultimate route then the router will forward the packet to that network. Level 1 parent route is a route that contains subnets and is not used to forward packets. Level 1 child routes and level 2 supernet routes are not valid routing table entries.
Hint
If the best match is a level 1 ultimate route then the router will forward the packet to that network. Level 1 parent route is a route that contains subnets and is not used to forward packets. Level 1 child routes and level 2 supernet routes are not valid routing table entries.
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
2 pointsWhich two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect
There are several factors to consider when selecting a routing protocol to implement. Two of them are scalability and speed of convergence. The other options are irrelevant.
Hint
There are several factors to consider when selecting a routing protocol to implement. Two of them are scalability and speed of convergence. The other options are irrelevant.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
1 pointsEmployees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?
Correct
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
1 pointsWhich network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?
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In some cases, maintaining a separate distribution and core layer is not required. In smaller campus locations where there are fewer users who are accessing the network or in campus sites that consist of a single building, separate core and distribution layers may not be needed. In this scenario, the recommendation is the alternate two-tier campus network design, also known as the collapsed core network design.
Hint
In some cases, maintaining a separate distribution and core layer is not required. In smaller campus locations where there are fewer users who are accessing the network or in campus sites that consist of a single building, separate core and distribution layers may not be needed. In this scenario, the recommendation is the alternate two-tier campus network design, also known as the collapsed core network design.
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
1 pointsWhich information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?
Correct
Incorrect
To maintain the MAC address table, the switch uses the source MAC address of the incoming packets and the port that the packets enter. The destination address is used to select the outgoing port.
Hint
To maintain the MAC address table, the switch uses the source MAC address of the incoming packets and the port that the packets enter. The destination address is used to select the outgoing port.
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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
1 pointsWhich advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?
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A switch using the store-and-forward switching method performs an error check on an incoming frame by comparing the FCS value against its own FCS calculations after the entire frame is received. In comparison, a switch using the cut-through switching method makes quick forwarding decisions and starts the forwarding process without waiting for the entire frame to be received. Thus a switch using cut-through switching may send invalid frames to the network. The performance of store-and-forward switching is slower compared to cut-through switching performance. Collision detection is monitored by the sending device. Store-and-forward switching does not use IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information for its forwarding decisions.
Hint
A switch using the store-and-forward switching method performs an error check on an incoming frame by comparing the FCS value against its own FCS calculations after the entire frame is received. In comparison, a switch using the cut-through switching method makes quick forwarding decisions and starts the forwarding process without waiting for the entire frame to be received. Thus a switch using cut-through switching may send invalid frames to the network. The performance of store-and-forward switching is slower compared to cut-through switching performance. Collision detection is monitored by the sending device. Store-and-forward switching does not use IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information for its forwarding decisions.
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
1 pointsWhich characteristic describes cut-through switching?
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Cut-through switching reduces latency by forwarding frames as soon as the destination MAC address and the corresponding switch port are read from the MAC address table. This switching method does not perform any error checking and does not use buffers to support different Ethernet speeds. Error checking and buffers are characteristics of store-and-forward switching.
Hint
Cut-through switching reduces latency by forwarding frames as soon as the destination MAC address and the corresponding switch port are read from the MAC address table. This switching method does not perform any error checking and does not use buffers to support different Ethernet speeds. Error checking and buffers are characteristics of store-and-forward switching.
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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
1 pointsWhat is a result of connecting two or more switches together?
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When two or more switches are connected together, the size of the broadcast domain is increased and so is the number of collision domains. The number of broadcast domains is increased only when routers are added.
Hint
When two or more switches are connected together, the size of the broadcast domain is increased and so is the number of collision domains. The number of broadcast domains is increased only when routers are added.
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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
1 pointsIn what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?
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Layer 2 switches can be configured with an IP address so that they can be remotely managed by an administrator. Layer 3 switches can use an IP address on routed ports. Layer 2 switches do not need a configured IP address to forward user traffic or act as a default gateway.
Hint
Layer 2 switches can be configured with an IP address so that they can be remotely managed by an administrator. Layer 3 switches can use an IP address on routed ports. Layer 2 switches do not need a configured IP address to forward user traffic or act as a default gateway.
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
3 pointsA network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)
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Incorrect
To enable the remote management access, the Cisco switch must be configured with an IP address and a default gateway. In addition, vty lines must configured to enable either Telnet or SSH connections. A loopback address, default VLAN, and VTP domain configurations are not necessary for the purpose of remote switch management.
Hint
To enable the remote management access, the Cisco switch must be configured with an IP address and a default gateway. In addition, vty lines must configured to enable either Telnet or SSH connections. A loopback address, default VLAN, and VTP domain configurations are not necessary for the purpose of remote switch management.
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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
1 pointsAs part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?
Correct
Incorrect
With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table.
Hint
With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table.
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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
1 pointsA network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?
Correct
Incorrect
On a Cisco switch, an interface can be configured for one of three violation modes, specifying the action to be taken if a violation occurs:Protect – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. There is no notification that a security violation has occurred.
Restrict – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. In this mode, there is a notification that a security violation has occurred.
Shutdown – The interface immediately becomes error-disabled and the port LED is turned off.Hint
On a Cisco switch, an interface can be configured for one of three violation modes, specifying the action to be taken if a violation occurs:Protect – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. There is no notification that a security violation has occurred.
Restrict – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. In this mode, there is a notification that a security violation has occurred.
Shutdown – The interface immediately becomes error-disabled and the port LED is turned off. -
Question 24 of 50
24. Question
1 pointsWhich commands are used to re-enable a port that has been disabled as a result of a port security violation?
Correct
Incorrect
When a switch security violation occurs, by default the port enters in the error-disable state and the port does not become active again automatically if the condition that triggered the violation disappears.
Hint
When a switch security violation occurs, by default the port enters in the error-disable state and the port does not become active again automatically if the condition that triggered the violation disappears.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
2 pointsWhich two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect
The native VLAN is assigned to 802.1Q trunks to provide a common identifier to both ends of the trunk link. Whatever VLAN native number is assigned to a port, or if the port is the default VLAN of 1, the port does not tag any frame in that VLAN as the traffic travels across the trunk. At the other end of the link, the receiving device that sees no tag knows the specific VLAN number because the receiving device must have the exact native VLAN number. The native VLAN should be an unused VLAN that is distinct from VLAN1, the default VLAN, as well as other VLANs. Data VLANs, also known as user VLANs, are configured to carry user-generated traffic, with the exception of high priority traffic, such as VoIP. Voice VLANs are configured for VoIP traffic. The management VLAN is configured to provide access to the management capabilities of a switch.
Hint
The native VLAN is assigned to 802.1Q trunks to provide a common identifier to both ends of the trunk link. Whatever VLAN native number is assigned to a port, or if the port is the default VLAN of 1, the port does not tag any frame in that VLAN as the traffic travels across the trunk. At the other end of the link, the receiving device that sees no tag knows the specific VLAN number because the receiving device must have the exact native VLAN number. The native VLAN should be an unused VLAN that is distinct from VLAN1, the default VLAN, as well as other VLANs. Data VLANs, also known as user VLANs, are configured to carry user-generated traffic, with the exception of high priority traffic, such as VoIP. Voice VLANs are configured for VoIP traffic. The management VLAN is configured to provide access to the management capabilities of a switch.
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
1 pointsWhich type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?
Correct
Incorrect
A native VLAN carries untagged traffic, which is traffic that does not come from a VLAN. A data VLAN carries user-generated traffic. A management VLAN carries management traffic.
Hint
A native VLAN carries untagged traffic, which is traffic that does not come from a VLAN. A data VLAN carries user-generated traffic. A management VLAN carries management traffic.
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
1 pointsAn administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?
Correct
Incorrect
Standard range VLANs (1-1005) are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory. Erasing the startup configuration and reloading a switch does not automatically remove these VLANs. The vlan.dat file must be manually deleted from flash memory and then the switch must be reloaded.
Hint
Standard range VLANs (1-1005) are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory. Erasing the startup configuration and reloading a switch does not automatically remove these VLANs. The vlan.dat file must be manually deleted from flash memory and then the switch must be reloaded.
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?
Correct
Incorrect
To forward all VLANs to the router, the switch interface Fa0/1 must be configured as a trunk interface with the switchport mode trunk command.
Hint
To forward all VLANs to the router, the switch interface Fa0/1 must be configured as a trunk interface with the switchport mode trunk command.
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
1 pointsA network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?
Correct
Incorrect
With the wildcard mask of 0.0.15.255, the IPv4 addresses that match the ACE are in the range of 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.47.255.
Hint
With the wildcard mask of 0.0.15.255, the IPv4 addresses that match the ACE are in the range of 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.47.255.
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
2 pointsThe computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
Numbered and named access lists can be used on vty lines to control remote access. The first ACL command, access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31, allows traffic that originates from any device on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. The second ACL command, access-class 5 in, applies the access list to a vty line.
Hint
Numbered and named access lists can be used on vty lines to control remote access. The first ACL command, access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31, allows traffic that originates from any device on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. The second ACL command, access-class 5 in, applies the access list to a vty line.
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. A network engineer is examining a configuration implemented by a new intern who attached an IP phone to a switch port and configured the switch. Identify the issue, if any, with the configuration.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
1 pointsWhich set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?
Correct
Incorrect
The /23 prefix is equivalent to a network mask of 255.255.254.0. The network usable IPv4 address range is 192.168.100.1 to 192.168.101.254 inclusive. The commands dhcp pool, ip default-gateway, and ip network are not valid DHCP configuration commands.
Hint
The /23 prefix is equivalent to a network mask of 255.255.254.0. The network usable IPv4 address range is 192.168.100.1 to 192.168.101.254 inclusive. The commands dhcp pool, ip default-gateway, and ip network are not valid DHCP configuration commands.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
Correct
Incorrect
The ip helper-address command has to be applied on interface Gi0/0. This command must be present on the interface of the LAN that contains the DHCPv4 client PC1 and must be directed to the correct DHCPv4 server.
Hint
The ip helper-address command has to be applied on interface Gi0/0. This command must be present on the interface of the LAN that contains the DHCPv4 client PC1 and must be directed to the correct DHCPv4 server.
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
1 pointsWhat is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?
Correct
Incorrect
The EUI-64 process uses the MAC address of an interface to construct an interface ID (IID). Because the MAC address is only 48 bits in length, 16 additional bits (FF:FE) must be added to the MAC address to create the full 64-bit interface ID.
Hint
The EUI-64 process uses the MAC address of an interface to construct an interface ID (IID). Because the MAC address is only 48 bits in length, 16 additional bits (FF:FE) must be added to the MAC address to create the full 64-bit interface ID.
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?
Correct
Incorrect
The interface command ipv6 nd other-config-flag allows RA messages to be sent on this interface, indicating that additional information is available from a stateless DHCPv6 server.
Hint
The interface command ipv6 nd other-config-flag allows RA messages to be sent on this interface, indicating that additional information is available from a stateless DHCPv6 server.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?
Correct
Incorrect
Because the packet is between Main and the web server, the source IP address is the inside global address of PC, 203.0.113.5.
Hint
Because the packet is between Main and the web server, the source IP address is the inside global address of PC, 203.0.113.5.
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
1 pointsWhich type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
Correct
Incorrect
IPsec protocols often perform integrity checks on packets when they are received to ensure that they have not been changed in transit from the source to the destination. Because NAT changes values in the headers as packets pass from inside to outside, these integrity checks can fail, thus causing the packets to be dropped at the destination.
Hint
IPsec protocols often perform integrity checks on packets when they are received to ensure that they have not been changed in transit from the source to the destination. Because NAT changes values in the headers as packets pass from inside to outside, these integrity checks can fail, thus causing the packets to be dropped at the destination.
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
1 pointsA small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?
Correct
Incorrect
A static NAT configuration is necessary for a web server that is accessible from the Internet. The configuration is achieved via an ip nat inside source static <inside local> <inside global> command under the global configuration mode. An IP address pool and an ACL are necessary when configuring dynamic NAT and PAT. The keyword overload is used to configure PAT.
Hint
A static NAT configuration is necessary for a web server that is accessible from the Internet. The configuration is achieved via an ip nat inside source static <inside local> <inside global> command under the global configuration mode. An IP address pool and an ACL are necessary when configuring dynamic NAT and PAT. The keyword overload is used to configure PAT.
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
1 pointsWhich configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?
Correct
Incorrect
With the command, ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload, the router is configured to translate internal private IP addresses in the range of 10.0.0.0/8 to a single public IP address, 209.165.200.225/30. The other options will not work, because the IP addresses defined in the pool, 192.168.2.0/28, are not routable on the Internet.
Hint
With the command, ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload, the router is configured to translate internal private IP addresses in the range of 10.0.0.0/8 to a single public IP address, 209.165.200.225/30. The other options will not work, because the IP addresses defined in the pool, 192.168.2.0/28, are not routable on the Internet.
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
1 pointsWhat benefit does NAT64 provide?
Correct
Incorrect
NAT64 is a temporary IPv6 transition strategy that allows sites to use IPv6 addresses and still be able to connect to IPv4 networks. This is accomplished by translating the IPv6 addresses into IPv4 addresses before sending the packets onto the IPv4 network.
Hint
NAT64 is a temporary IPv6 transition strategy that allows sites to use IPv6 addresses and still be able to connect to IPv4 networks. This is accomplished by translating the IPv6 addresses into IPv4 addresses before sending the packets onto the IPv4 network.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Correct
Incorrect
The output of show ip nat statistics shows that there are 2 total addresses and that 2 addresses have been allocated (100%). This indicates that the NAT pool is out of global addresses to give new clients. Based on the show ip nat translations, PCs at 10.1.1.33 and 10.1.1.123 have used the two available addresses to send ICMP messages to a host on the outside network.
Hint
The output of show ip nat statistics shows that there are 2 total addresses and that 2 addresses have been allocated (100%). This indicates that the NAT pool is out of global addresses to give new clients. Based on the show ip nat translations, PCs at 10.1.1.33 and 10.1.1.123 have used the two available addresses to send ICMP messages to a host on the outside network.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
1 pointsA network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
Correct
Incorrect
In this case the show cdp neigbors command is the only command that will provide information relevant to both distribution and access layer devices. The show mac-address-table and show port-security commands will display information that is more related to access layer operations. The show ip protocols and show ip interface commands will display information more related to routing and network layer functions performed by devices in the distribution layer.
Hint
In this case the show cdp neigbors command is the only command that will provide information relevant to both distribution and access layer devices. The show mac-address-table and show port-security commands will display information that is more related to access layer operations. The show ip protocols and show ip interface commands will display information more related to routing and network layer functions performed by devices in the distribution layer.
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
2 pointsWhich two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
If the network NTP master cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number, the system will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number, and other systems will be willing to synchronize to it using NTP.
Hint
If the network NTP master cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number, the system will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number, and other systems will be willing to synchronize to it using NTP.
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
1 pointsA network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?
Correct
Incorrect
System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device via the command logging trap 4 and logging ip-address.
Hint
System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device via the command logging trap 4 and logging ip-address.
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?
Correct
Incorrect
The number 5 in the message output %SYS-5-CONFIG_I, indicated this is a notification level message that is for normal but significant conditions.
Hint
The number 5 in the message output %SYS-5-CONFIG_I, indicated this is a notification level message that is for normal but significant conditions.
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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
1 pointsWhat is indicated by the M in the Cisco IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin?
Correct
Incorrect
The file name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates a version of Cisco IOS that includes the major release, minor release, maintenance release, and maintenance rebuild numbers. The M indicates this is an extended maintenance release.
Hint
The file name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates a version of Cisco IOS that includes the major release, minor release, maintenance release, and maintenance rebuild numbers. The M indicates this is an extended maintenance release.
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Question 47 of 50
47. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much space is available for the new image?
Correct
Incorrect
There are 221896413 bytes of space available in flash for the new image according to the line “[33847587 bytes used, 221896413 available, 255744000 total]” from the output.
Hint
There are 221896413 bytes of space available in flash for the new image according to the line “[33847587 bytes used, 221896413 available, 255744000 total]” from the output.
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
2 pointsRefer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what are two reasons VLAN 99 missing? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
VLAN 99 was not manually created on switch Sw1. When a VLAN interface is created, the VLAN is not automatically populated into the VLAN database.
Hint
VLAN 99 was not manually created on switch Sw1. When a VLAN interface is created, the VLAN is not automatically populated into the VLAN database.
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
4 pointsMatch the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)
Sort elements
- full operating system
- limited operating system
- routing table
- startup configuration file
- console access
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flash
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ROM
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RAM
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NVRAM
Correct
Incorrect
Console access – Even though the commands a technician types while connected to the console port will be held in RAM, console access itself does not match a memory type.
Flash – holds the full operating system.
NVRAM – holds the startup configuration file.
RAM – holds the running configuration (commands as they are being typed, ARP cache, and the routing table).
ROM – holds a small, limited functionality operating system.Hint
Console access – Even though the commands a technician types while connected to the console port will be held in RAM, console access itself does not match a memory type.
Flash – holds the full operating system.
NVRAM – holds the startup configuration file.
RAM – holds the running configuration (commands as they are being typed, ARP cache, and the routing table).
ROM – holds a small, limited functionality operating system. -
Question 50 of 50
50. Question
4 pointsOrder the DHCP process steps. (Not all options are used.)
Sort elements
- DHCPREQUEST (broadcast)
- DHCPACK (unicast)
- DHCPOFFER (unicast)
- DHCPDISCOVER (broadcast)
- DHCPACK (broadcast)
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Step 3
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Step 4
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Step 2
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Step 1
Correct
Incorrect