ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019

Last Updated on March 2, 2019 by Admin

ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 (100%)

Cisco CCNA 1 ITN v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers Routing and Switching (R&S) Introduction to Networks (ITN) (Version 6.00) collection year 2017, 2018 and 2019 Full 100%. CCNA 1 has been know as ITN. The following are the questions exam answers. Guarantee Passed 100%. CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Exam answers has some new update from the old version 5.1. You can review all Practice Exam Answers. You will get passed scored 100% with this version 6.0. Good Luck for Cisco Netacad ITN v6.0 Exam!

1. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

   • Internet
   • intranet
   • extranet
   • extendednet
     

     Explanation: The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of connected networks. Intranet refers to a private connection of LANs and WANS that belong to an organization and is designed to be accessible to the members of the organization, employees, or others with authorization.​ Extranets provide secure and safe access to ​suppliers, customers, and collaborators. Extendednet is not a type of network.

2. A small business user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

   • DSL
   • dial-up
   • satellite
   • cell modem
   • cable modem

3. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

   

   Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 001

   • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
   • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
   • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
   • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
     

     Explanation: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal, or a shortened version such as config t, must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal command.

4. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

   • Ctrl-Shift-X
   • Ctrl-Shift-6
   • Ctrl-Z
   • Ctrl-C
     

     Explanation: The Cisco IOS provides both hot keys and shortcuts for configuring routers and switches. The Ctrl-Shift-6 hot key combination is used to interrupt an IOS process, such as a ping or traceroute. Ctrl-Z is used to exit the configuration mode. Ctrl-C aborts the current command. Ctrl-Shift-X has no IOS function.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

   

   Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 002

   • letmein
   • secretin
   • lineconin
   • linevtyin
     

     Explanation: Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.

6. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

   • This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
   • This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.
   • This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.
   • This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.
   • This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.

7. What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?

   • The SVI provides a physical interface for remote access to the switch.
   • The SVI provides a faster method for switching traffic between ports on the switch.
   • The SVI adds Layer 4 connectivity between VLANs.
   • The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.
     

     Explanation: The SVI is a virtual, not physical, interface that provides remote access to the switch. It does not impact Layer 4 nor does it enhance switching between switch ports on the switch.

8. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

   • duplex
   • unicast
   • multicast
   • broadcast
     

     Explanation: When all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously, the message would be delivered as a broadcast. Unicast delivery occurs when one source host sends a message to one destination host. The sending of the same message from a host to a group of destination hosts is multicast delivery. Duplex communications refers to the ability of the medium to carry messages in both directions.

9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

   • POP
   • BOOTP
   • ICMP
   • IP
   • PPP
     

     Explanation: ICMP and IP both function at the internet layer, whereas PPP is a network access layer protocol, and POP and BOOTP are application layer protocols.

10. What PDU is associated with the transport layer?

    • segment
    • packet
    • frame
    • bits
      

      Explanation: The PDU for the transport layer is called a segment. Packets, frames, and bits are PDUs for the network, data link, and physical layers respectively.

11. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

    • It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
    • It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
    • It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
    • It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.
      

      Explanation: When messages are sent on a network, the encapsulation process works from the top of the OSI or TCP/IP model to the bottom. At each layer of the model, the upper layer information is encapsulated into the data field of the next protocol. For example, before an IP packet can be sent, it is encapsulated in a data link frame at Layer 2 so that it can be sent over the physical medium.

12. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

    • fiber
    • radio waves
    • microwave
    • UTP
      

      Explanation: A wired LAN connection commonly uses UTP. A wireless LAN connection uses radio waves.

13. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)

    • crosstalk
    • bandwidth
    • size of the network
    • signal modulation technique
    • electromagnetic interference
      

      Explanation: Copper media is widely used in network communications. However, copper media is limited by distance and signal interference. Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. The electrical pulses are susceptible to interference from two sources: Electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI) – EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt the data signals being carried by copper media. Crosstalk – Crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of a signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire.

14. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.)

    • internet
    • physical
    • LLC
    • transport
    • MAC
    • network access
      

      Explanation: The data link layer of the OSI model is divided into two sublayers: the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer and the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer.

15. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

    • bus
    • hierarchical
    • mesh
    • ring
    • star
      

      Explanation: The mesh topology provides high availability because every node is connected to all other nodes. Mesh topologies can be found in WANs. A partial mesh topology can also be used where some, but not all, end points connect to one another.

16. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

    • access method
    • flow control
    • message encapsulation
    • message encoding
      

      Explanation: Carrier sense multiple access collision detection (CSMA/CD) is the access method used with Ethernet. The access method rule of communication dictates how a network device is able to place a signal on the carrier. CSMA/CD dictates those rules on an Ethernet network and CSMA/CA dictates those rules on an 802.11 wireless LAN.

17. If data is being sent over a wireless network, then connects to an Ethernet network, and eventually connects to a DSL connection, which header will be replaced each time the data travels through a network infrastructure device?

    • Layer 3
    • data link
    • physical
    • Layer 4
      

      Explanation: Because each data link layer protocol controls how the device accesses the media, the data link information must be removed and re-attached. Even if a packet is going from one Ethernet network to another Ethernet network, the data link layer information is replaced.

18. What best describes the destination IPv4 address that is used by multicasting?

    • a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group
    • an IP address that is unique for each destination in the group
    • a group address that shares the last 23 bits with the source IPv4 address
    • a 48 bit address that is determined by the number of members in the multicast group
      

      Explanation: The destination multicast IPv4 address is a group address, which is a single IP multicast address within the Class D range.

19. In an Ethernet network, when a device receives a frame of 1200 bytes, what will it do?

    • drop the frame
    • process the frame as it is
    • send an error message to the sending device
    • add random data bytes to make the frame 1518 bytes long and then forward it
      

      Explanation: Ethernet standards define the minimum frame as 64 bytes and a maximum of 1518 bytes. A frame less than 64 bytes is considered a “collision fragment” or “runt frame” and is automatically discarded by receiving devices. A frame greater than 1500 is considered a “baby giant”. A 1200 byte frame is within the normal range so it would be processed as is.

20. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?

    • source MAC address
    • source IP address
    • destination MAC address
    • Ethernet type
    • destination IP address
      

      Explanation: The Layer 2 device, such as a switch, uses the destination MAC address to determine which path (interface or port) should be used to send the data onward to the destination device.

21. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

    • It initiates an ARP request.
    • It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
    • It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
    • It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
      

      Explanation: A Layer 2 switch determines how to handle incoming frames by using its MAC address table. When an incoming frame contains a destination MAC address that is not in the table, the switch forwards the frame out all ports, except for the port on which it was received.

22. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

    • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
    • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
    • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
    • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
    • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.
      

      Explanation: When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs the destination MAC address. First it determines if the destination device is on the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not the MAC table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either the destination IP address (if the destination host is on the local network) or the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network). If the match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP address to MAC address resolution. Because the destination MAC address is unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the destination device or the default gateway will respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to assemble the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will discard the packet because a frame cannot be created.

23. Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using domain names? (Choose two.)

    • DNS
    • WINS
    • HTTP
    • DHCP
    • SMTP

24. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

    • connectionless
    • media dependent
    • user data segmentation
    • reliable end-to-end delivery
      

      Explanation: Internet Protocol (IP) is a network layer protocol that does not require initial exchange of control information to establish an end-to-end connection before packets are forwarded. Thus, IP is connectionless and does not provide reliable end-to-end delivery by itself. IP is media independent. User data segmentation is a service provided at the transport layer.

25. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation. Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?

    

    Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 003

    • ::1/128
    • fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
    • fe80::/64
    • 2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
      

      Explanation: In the IPv6 address scheme, the network of fe80::/10 is reserved for link-local addresses. The address fe80::/64 is a network address that indicates, in this workstation, fe80::/64 is actually used for link-local addresses. Thus the address fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128 is a valid IPv6 link-local address.

26. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

    • ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
    • FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS.
    • RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
    • NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
    • ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.
      

      Explanation: ROM is a nonvolatile memory and stores bootup instructions, basic diagnostic software, and a limited IOS. Flash is a nonvolatile memory used as permanent storage for the IOS and other system-related files. RAM is volatile memory and stores the IP routing table, IPv4 to MAC address mappings in the ARP cache, packets that are buffered or temporarily stored, the running configuration, and the currently running IOS. NVRAM is a nonvolatile memory that stores the startup configuration file.

27. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network use? (Choose three.)

    • 10.0.0.0/8
    • 172.16.0.0/12
    • 192.168.0.0/16
    • 100.64.0.0/14
    • 169.254.0.0/16
    • 239.0.0.0/8
      

      Explanation: RFC 1918, Address Allocation for Private Internets, defines three blocks of IPv4 address for private networks that should not be routable on the public Internet. 10.0.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/12 192.168.0.0/16

28. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

    • 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
    • 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
    • 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
    • 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234
      

      Explanation: There are two rules defining how an IPv6 address can be compressed. The first rule states that leading zeros in a hextet can be eliminated. The second rule states that a single :: can be used to represent one or more contiguous all zero hextets. There can be one and only one :: in an IPv6 address.

29. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

    • link-local
    • unique local
    • site local
    • global unicast
      

      Explanation: All IPv6 enabled interfaces must at minimum have a link-local address. Other IPv6 addresses can be assigned to the interface as required.

30. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?

    • all IPv6 enabled devices across the network
    • all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link
    • all IPv6 DHCP servers
    • all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
      

      Explanation: FF02::2 identifies all IPv6 routers that exist on the link or network. FF02::1 is the target for all IPv6 enabled devices on the link or network.​

31. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

    • to inform routers about network topology changes
    • to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
    • to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
    • to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
      

      Explanation: The purpose of ICMP messages is to provide feedback about issues that are related to the processing of IP packets.

32. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

    • It sends four Echo Request messages.
    • It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.
    • It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.
    • It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.
      

      Explanation: Traceroute is a utility that generates a list of hops (or routers) along the path from a source host to the destination host.

33. What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /26 mask?

    • 256
    • 254
    • 64
    • 62
    • 32
    • 16
      

      Explanation: A /26 mask is the same as 255.255.255.192. The mask leaves 6 host bits. With 6 host bits, 64 IP addresses are possible. One address represents the subnet number and one address represents the broadcast address, which means that 62 addresses can then be used to assign to network devices.

34. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

    

    Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 004

    • 172.16.16.255
    • 172.16.20.255
    • 172.16.19.255
    • 172.16.23.255
    • 172.16.255.255
      

      Explanation: The 172.16.16.0/22 network has 22 bits in the network portion and 10 bits in the host portion. Converting the network address to binary yields a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. The range of addresses in this network will end with the last address available before 172.16.20.0. Valid host addresses for this network range from 172.16.16.1-172.16.19.254, making 172.16.19.255 the broadcast address.

35. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.144/28
      10.1.1.160/29
    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.144/28
      10.1.1.160/28
    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.140/28
      10.1.1.158/26
    • 10.1.1.128/26
      10.1.1.144/26
      10.1.1.160/26
    • 10.1.1.128/26
      10.1.1.140/26
      10.1.1.158/28

      Explanation: Prefix lengths of /28 and /29 are the most efficient to create subnets of 16 addresses (to support 10 hosts) and 8 addresses (to support 6 hosts), respectively. Addresses in one subnet must also not overlap into the range of another subnet.

36. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?

    • 2001:db8:0:f00::/52
    • 2001:db8:0:8000::/52
    • 2001:db8:0:f::/52
    • 2001:db8:0:f000::/52
      

      Explanation: Prefix 2001:db8::/48 has 48 network bits. If we subnet to a /52, we are moving the network boundary four bits to the right and creating 16 subnets. The first subnet is 2001:db8::/52 the last subnet is 2001:db8:0:f000::/52.

37. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

    • The data flow is being tracked based on the destination port number utilized by each application.
    • The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number utilized by each application.
    • The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address used by the PC of the technician.
    • The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address used by the PC of the technician.
      

      Explanation: The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous communication from multiple applications through the Internet.

38. What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)

    • flow control
    • encryption of data
    • path determination
    • connection establishment
    • error recovery
    • bit transmission
    • data representation
      

      Explanation: The transport layer is responsible for tracking digital conversations between a source application and a destination application through the use of port numbers. Two protocols that operate at the transport layer are TCP and UDP. TCP can provide reliability by establishing a connection, maintaining flow control, and error recovery.

39. An Internet television transmission is using UDP. What happens when part of the transmission is not delivered to the destination?

    • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
    • The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
    • The entire transmission is re-sent.
    • The transmission continues without the missing portion.
      

      Explanation: Most streaming services, such as Internet television, use UDP as the transport layer protocol. These transmissions can tolerate some transmission failures, and no failure messages or retransmissions are required. Such control measures would create noticeable disruption to the flow of data.

40. Which two OSI model layers are considered to be included in the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

    • internet
    • network
    • presentation
    • session
    • transport
      

      Explanation: The top three OSI model layers are included in the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. These top three OSI model layers include the application, presentation, and session layers.

41. An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file server of a book publisher. What role is the personal computer assuming in this network model?

    • client
    • master
    • server
    • slave
    • transient
      

      Explanation: In the client/server network model, a network device assumes the role of server in order to provide a particular service such as file transfer and storage. The device requesting the service assumes the role of client. In the client/server network model, a dedicated server does not have to be used, but if one is present, the network model being used is the client/server model. In contrast, the peer-to-peer network model does not have a dedicated server.

42. Which two automatic addressing assignments are supported by DHCP? (Choose two.)

    • local server address
    • subnet mask
    • default gateway address
    • physical address of the recipient
    • physical address of the sender

43. When a network administrator is trying to manage network traffic on a growing network, when should traffic flow patterns be analyzed?

    • during times of peak utilization
    • during off-peak hours
    • during employee holidays and weekends
    • during randomly selected times
      

      Explanation: Planning for network growth requires knowledge of the types of traffic traveling on the network. Network administrators can use a protocol analyzer to identify the traffic on the network. To get the best representation of the different types of traffic, the network should be analyzed during peak utilization.

44. What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

    • discovery and mapping of systems
    • unauthorized manipulation of data
    • disabling network systems or services
    • denying access to resources by legitimate users
      

      Explanation: The objective of a network reconnaissance attack is to discover information about a network, network systems, and network services.

45. What will be the result of failed login attempts if the following command is entered into a router?

    login block-for 150 attempts 4 within 90

    • All login attempts will be blocked for 150 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 90 seconds.
    • All login attempts will be blocked for 90 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.
    • All login attempts will be blocked for 1.5 hours if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.
    • All login attempts will be blocked for 4 hours if there are 90 failed attempts within 150 seconds.
      

      Explanation:  The components of the login block-for 150 attempts 4 within 90 command are as follows: The expression block-for 150 is the time in seconds that logins will be blocked. The expression attempts 4 is the number of failed attempts that will trigger the blocking of login requests. The expression within 90 is the time in seconds in which the 4 failed attempts must occur.

46. A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?

    • The NIC in the PC is bad.
    • The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled.
    • The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down.
    • Nothing can be determined for sure at this point.
      

      Explanation: In networks today, a failed ping could mean that the other devices on the network are blocking pings. Further investigation such as checking network connectivity from other devices on the same network is warranted.

47. For Cisco IOS, which escape sequence allows terminating a traceroute operation?

    • Ctrl+Shift+6
    • Ctrl+Esc
    • Ctrl+x
    • Ctrl+c
      

      Explanation: Once a traceroute is initiated in the Cisco IOS, it can be stopped by issuing the Ctrl+Shift+6 escape sequence.

48. What is an advantage of storing configuration files to a USB flash drive instead of to a TFTP server?

    • The files can be saved without using terminal emulation software.
    • The transfer of the files does not rely on network connectivity.
    • The USB flash drive is more secure.
    • The configuration files can be stored to a flash drive that uses any file system format.

49. Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 005

    • Answer
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 006

50. Match the descriptions to the terms. (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 007

    • Answer
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 008

      Explanation: A GUI, or graphical user interface, allows the user to interact with the operating system by pointing and clicking at elements on the screen. A CLI, or command-line interface, requires users to type commands at a prompt in order to interact with the OS. The shell is the part of the operating system that is closest to the user. The kernel is the part of the operating system that interfaces with the hardware.

51. Match the functions with the corresponding OSI layer. (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 009

    • Answer
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 010

52. Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router . (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 011

    • Answer
      

      Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answer R&S 2018 2019 012

      Explanation: There are three major phases to the bootup process of a Cisco router: Perform the POST and load the bootstrap program. Locate and load the Cisco IOS software. Locate and load the startup configuration file If a startup configuration file cannot be located, the router will enter setup mode by displaying the setup mode prompt.