Last Updated on October 29, 2019 by Admin
CCNA CyberOps Chapter 10 Exam Online
CCNA CyberOps 1.1 -- Chapter 10 Exam
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CCNA CyberOps 1.1 — Chapter 10 Exam
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Question 1 of 39
1. Question
1 pointsWhich device in a LAN infrastructure is susceptible to MAC address-table overflow and spoofing attacks?
Correct
Incorrect
Switches are LAN infrastructure devices interconnecting endpoints. They are susceptible to LAN-related attacks including MAC address-table overflow attacks, spoofing attacks, LAN storm attacks, STP manipulation attacks, and VLAN attacks.
Hint
Switches are LAN infrastructure devices interconnecting endpoints. They are susceptible to LAN-related attacks including MAC address-table overflow attacks, spoofing attacks, LAN storm attacks, STP manipulation attacks, and VLAN attacks.
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Question 2 of 39
2. Question
1 pointsWhich type of antimalware software detects and mitigates malware by analyzing suspicious activities?
Correct
Incorrect
Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different approaches:
- signature-based – by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files
- heuristics-based – by recognizing general features shared by various types of malware
- behavior-based – through analysis of suspicious activities
Hint
Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different approaches:
- signature-based – by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files
- heuristics-based – by recognizing general features shared by various types of malware
- behavior-based – through analysis of suspicious activities
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Question 3 of 39
3. Question
1 pointsIn most host-based security suites, which function provides robust logging of security-related events and sends logs to a central location?
Correct
Incorrect
The telemetry functionality in most host-based security suites provides robust logging functionality and submits logs to a central location for analysis.
Hint
The telemetry functionality in most host-based security suites provides robust logging functionality and submits logs to a central location for analysis.
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Question 4 of 39
4. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes agentless antivirus protection?
Correct
Incorrect
Host-based antivirus protection is also known as agent-based. Agent-based antivirus runs on every protected machine. Agentless antivirus protection performs scans on hosts from a centralized system.
Hint
Host-based antivirus protection is also known as agent-based. Agent-based antivirus runs on every protected machine. Agentless antivirus protection performs scans on hosts from a centralized system.
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Question 5 of 39
5. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes the use of a Network Admission Control (NAC) solution?
Correct
Incorrect
Network Admission Control (NAC) allows only authorized and compliant systems to connect to a network.
Hint
Network Admission Control (NAC) allows only authorized and compliant systems to connect to a network.
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Question 6 of 39
6. Question
1 pointsWhat type of antimalware program is able to detect viruses by recognizing various characteristics of a known malware file?
Correct
Incorrect
Using a signature-based approach, host security software can detect viruses and malware by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files.
Hint
Using a signature-based approach, host security software can detect viruses and malware by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files.
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Question 7 of 39
7. Question
1 pointsWhat is a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
Correct
Incorrect
A current HIDS is a comprehensive security application that combines the functionalities of antimalware applications with firewall protection. An HIDS not only detects malware but also prevents it from executing. Because the HIDS runs directly on the host, it is considered an agent-based system.
Hint
A current HIDS is a comprehensive security application that combines the functionalities of antimalware applications with firewall protection. An HIDS not only detects malware but also prevents it from executing. Because the HIDS runs directly on the host, it is considered an agent-based system.
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Question 8 of 39
8. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes the anomaly-based intrusion detection approach?
Correct
Incorrect
With an anomaly-based intrusion detection approach, a baseline of host behaviors is established first. The host behavior is checked against the baseline to detect significant deviations, which might indicate potential intrusions.
Hint
With an anomaly-based intrusion detection approach, a baseline of host behaviors is established first. The host behavior is checked against the baseline to detect significant deviations, which might indicate potential intrusions.
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Question 9 of 39
9. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes the term iptables?
Correct
Incorrect
Iptables is an application that allows Linux system administrators to configure network access rules.
Hint
Iptables is an application that allows Linux system administrators to configure network access rules.
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Question 10 of 39
10. Question
1 pointsOn a Windows host, which tool can be used to create and maintain blacklists and whitelists?
Correct
Incorrect
In Windows, blacklisting and whitelisting settings can be managed through the Group Policy Editor.
Hint
In Windows, blacklisting and whitelisting settings can be managed through the Group Policy Editor.
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Question 11 of 39
11. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes the term attack surface?
Correct
Incorrect
An attack surface is the total sum of the vulnerabilities in a system that is accessible to an attacker. The attack surface can consist of open ports on servers or hosts, software that runs on Internet-facing servers, wireless network protocols, and even users.
Hint
An attack surface is the total sum of the vulnerabilities in a system that is accessible to an attacker. The attack surface can consist of open ports on servers or hosts, software that runs on Internet-facing servers, wireless network protocols, and even users.
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Question 12 of 39
12. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes the Cisco Threat Grid Glovebox?
Correct
Incorrect
Cisco ThreatGrid Glovebox is a sandbox product for analyzing malware behaviors.
Hint
Cisco ThreatGrid Glovebox is a sandbox product for analyzing malware behaviors.
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Question 13 of 39
13. Question
1 pointsWhich security procedure would be used on a Windows workstation to prevent access to a specific set of websites?
Correct
Incorrect
Blacklists can be used to identify and prevent specific applications, websites, or services from being downloaded or executed within an enterprise network.
Hint
Blacklists can be used to identify and prevent specific applications, websites, or services from being downloaded or executed within an enterprise network.
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Question 14 of 39
14. Question
1 pointsWhen a network baseline is being established for an organization, which network profile element indicates the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination?
Correct
Incorrect
Important elements of a network profile include:
- Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
- Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
- Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
- Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
Hint
Important elements of a network profile include:
- Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
- Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
- Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
- Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
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Question 15 of 39
15. Question
1 pointsIn network security assessments, which type of test employs software to scan internal networks and Internet facing servers for various types of vulnerabilities?
Correct
Incorrect
In vulnerability assessment, security analysts use software to scan internal networks and Internet facing servers for various types of vulnerabilities. Tools for vulnerability assessment include the open source OpenVAS platform, Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer, Nessus, Qualys, and Fireeye Mandiant services.
Hint
In vulnerability assessment, security analysts use software to scan internal networks and Internet facing servers for various types of vulnerabilities. Tools for vulnerability assessment include the open source OpenVAS platform, Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer, Nessus, Qualys, and Fireeye Mandiant services.
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Question 16 of 39
16. Question
2 pointsWhich two classes of metrics are included in the CVSS Base Metric Group? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
The Base Metric Group of CVSS represents the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across contexts. It contains two classes of metrics, Exploitability and Impact.
Hint
The Base Metric Group of CVSS represents the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across contexts. It contains two classes of metrics, Exploitability and Impact.
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Question 17 of 39
17. Question
1 pointsWhich criterion in the Base Metric Group Exploitability metrics reflects the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerable component?
Correct
Incorrect
The Base Metric Group Exploitability metrics include the criteria:
- Attack vector – a metric that reflects the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerable component
- Attack complexity – a metric that expresses the number of components, software, hardware, or networks, that are beyond control of the attacker and that must be present in order for a vulnerability to be successfully exploited
- Privileges required – a metric that captures the level of access that is required for a successful exploit of the vulnerability
- User interaction – second component of the attack complexity metric that expresses the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful
- Scope – a metric that expresses whether multiple authorities must be involved in an exploit
Hint
The Base Metric Group Exploitability metrics include the criteria:
- Attack vector – a metric that reflects the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerable component
- Attack complexity – a metric that expresses the number of components, software, hardware, or networks, that are beyond control of the attacker and that must be present in order for a vulnerability to be successfully exploited
- Privileges required – a metric that captures the level of access that is required for a successful exploit of the vulnerability
- User interaction – second component of the attack complexity metric that expresses the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful
- Scope – a metric that expresses whether multiple authorities must be involved in an exploit
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Question 18 of 39
18. Question
2 pointsWhich two criteria in the Base Metric Group Exploitability metrics are associated with the complexity of attacks? (Choose two)
Correct
Incorrect
The Base Metric Group Exploitability metrics include these criteria:
- Attack vector – a metric that reflects the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerable component
- Attack complexity – a metric that expresses the number of components, software, hardware, or networks, that are beyond control of the attacker and that must be present in order for a vulnerability to be successfully exploited
- Privileges required – a metric that captures the level of access that is required for a successful exploit of the vulnerability
- User interaction – second component of the attack complexity metric that expresses the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful
- Scope – a metric that expresses whether multiple authorities must be involved in an exploit
Hint
The Base Metric Group Exploitability metrics include these criteria:
- Attack vector – a metric that reflects the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerable component
- Attack complexity – a metric that expresses the number of components, software, hardware, or networks, that are beyond control of the attacker and that must be present in order for a vulnerability to be successfully exploited
- Privileges required – a metric that captures the level of access that is required for a successful exploit of the vulnerability
- User interaction – second component of the attack complexity metric that expresses the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful
- Scope – a metric that expresses whether multiple authorities must be involved in an exploit
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Question 19 of 39
19. Question
1 pointsWhich regulatory compliance regulation sets requirements for all U.S. public company boards, management and public accounting firms regarding the way in which corporations control and disclose financial information?
Correct
Incorrect
There are five major regulatory compliance regulations including:
- Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 (FISMA) – specifies security standards for U.S. government systems and contractors to the U.S. government.
- Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) – sets new or expanded requirements for all U.S. public company boards, management and public accounting firms regarding the way in which corporations control and disclose financial information.
- Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) – established that financial institutions must ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information; protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) – requires that all patient personally identifiable healthcare information be stored, maintained, and transmitted in ways that ensure patient privacy and confidentiality.
Hint
There are five major regulatory compliance regulations including:
- Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 (FISMA) – specifies security standards for U.S. government systems and contractors to the U.S. government.
- Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) – sets new or expanded requirements for all U.S. public company boards, management and public accounting firms regarding the way in which corporations control and disclose financial information.
- Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) – established that financial institutions must ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information; protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) – requires that all patient personally identifiable healthcare information be stored, maintained, and transmitted in ways that ensure patient privacy and confidentiality.
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Question 20 of 39
20. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes the threat-vulnerability (T-V) pairing?
Correct
Incorrect
A mandatory activity in risk assessment is the identification of threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities, also called threat-vulnerability (T-V) pairing.
Hint
A mandatory activity in risk assessment is the identification of threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities, also called threat-vulnerability (T-V) pairing.
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Question 21 of 39
21. Question
1 pointsIn addressing an identified risk, which strategy aims to stop performing the activities that create risk?
Correct
Incorrect
There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:
- Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
- Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
- Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
- Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
Hint
There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:
- Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
- Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
- Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
- Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
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Question 22 of 39
22. Question
1 pointsIn addressing a risk that has low potential impact and relatively high cost of mitigation or reduction, which strategy will accept the risk and its consequences?
Correct
Incorrect
There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:
- Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
- Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
- Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
- Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
Hint
There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:
- Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
- Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
- Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
- Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
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Question 23 of 39
23. Question
1 pointsThe IT security personnel of an organization notice that the web server deployed in the DMZ is frequently targeted by threat actors. The decision is made to implement a patch management system to manage the server. Which risk management strategy method is being used to respond to the identified risk?
Correct
Incorrect
There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:
- Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
- Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
- Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
- Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
Hint
There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:
- Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
- Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
- Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
- Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.
-
Question 24 of 39
24. Question
1 pointsWhich step in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle determines a baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on asset criticality, vulnerability threat, and asset classification?
Correct
Incorrect
The steps in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle include these:Discover – inventory all assets across the network and identify host details, including operating systems and open services, to identify vulnerabilities
Prioritize assets – categorize assets into groups or business units, and assign a business value to asset groups based on their criticality to business operations
Assess – determine a baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on asset criticality, vulnerability threats, and asset classification
Report – measure the level of business risk associated with assets according to security policies. Document a security plan, monitor suspicious activity, and describe known vulnerabilities.
Remediate – prioritize according to business risk and fix vulnerabilities in order of risk
Verify – verify that threats have been eliminated through follow-up auditsHint
The steps in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle include these:Discover – inventory all assets across the network and identify host details, including operating systems and open services, to identify vulnerabilities
Prioritize assets – categorize assets into groups or business units, and assign a business value to asset groups based on their criticality to business operations
Assess – determine a baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on asset criticality, vulnerability threats, and asset classification
Report – measure the level of business risk associated with assets according to security policies. Document a security plan, monitor suspicious activity, and describe known vulnerabilities.
Remediate – prioritize according to business risk and fix vulnerabilities in order of risk
Verify – verify that threats have been eliminated through follow-up audits -
Question 25 of 39
25. Question
1 pointsFor network systems, which management system addresses the inventory and control of hardware and software configurations?
Correct
Incorrect
Configuration management addresses the inventory and control of hardware and software configurations of network systems.
Hint
Configuration management addresses the inventory and control of hardware and software configurations of network systems.
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Question 26 of 39
26. Question
1 pointsWhat is the first step taken in risk assessment?
Correct
Incorrect
The three steps of risk assessment in order are as follows:
- Identify threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities.
- Establish a baseline to indicate risk before security controls are implemented.
- Compare to an ongoing risk assessment as a means of evaluating risk management effectiveness.
Hint
The three steps of risk assessment in order are as follows:
- Identify threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities.
- Establish a baseline to indicate risk before security controls are implemented.
- Compare to an ongoing risk assessment as a means of evaluating risk management effectiveness.
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Question 27 of 39
27. Question
4 pointsMatch the network-based antimalware solution to the function. (Not all options are used.)
Sort elements
- provides filtering of SPAM and potentially malicious emails before they reach the endpoint
- provides filtering of websites and blacklisting before they reach the endpoint
- permits only authorized and compliant systems to connect to the network
- provides endpoint protection from viruses and malware
- provides dynamic IP addresses to authenticated endpoints
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email security appliance
-
web security appliance
-
network admission control
-
advanced malware protection
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 28 of 39
28. Question
3 pointsMatch the description to the antimalware approach. (Not all options are used.)
Sort elements
- behavior-based
- signature-based
- heuristics-based
- agent-based
-
analyzing suspicious activities
-
recognizing various characteristics of known malware files
-
recognizing general features shared by various types of malware
Correct
Incorrect
Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different approaches:
- signature-based – by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files
- heuristics-based – by recognizing general features shared by various types of malware
- behavior-based – through analysis of suspicious activities
Hint
Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different approaches:
- signature-based – by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files
- heuristics-based – by recognizing general features shared by various types of malware
- behavior-based – through analysis of suspicious activities
-
Question 29 of 39
29. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
Linux server services are managed using configuration files that contain specific information about the service including port number, location of the hosted resources, and client authorization details.
Hint
Linux server services are managed using configuration files that contain specific information about the service including port number, location of the hosted resources, and client authorization details.
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Question 30 of 39
30. Question
2 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
A network design that uses distributed firewalls centrally manages security rules and pushes those rules to the Linux and Windows host machines. Windows-based hosts use the Windows Firewall, whereas the Linux-based hosts use a firewall application such as iptables or nftables. Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention software. Wireshark is a packet capture tool and Security information and event management (SIEM) provides real-time analysis of alerts and log entries generated by network appliances such as IDSs and firewalls.
Hint
A network design that uses distributed firewalls centrally manages security rules and pushes those rules to the Linux and Windows host machines. Windows-based hosts use the Windows Firewall, whereas the Linux-based hosts use a firewall application such as iptables or nftables. Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention software. Wireshark is a packet capture tool and Security information and event management (SIEM) provides real-time analysis of alerts and log entries generated by network appliances such as IDSs and firewalls.
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Question 31 of 39
31. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an application layer protocol used to monitor and manage the network. Network devices have SNMP agents that communicate with the SNMP manager where the SNMP management software runs.
Hint
The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an application layer protocol used to monitor and manage the network. Network devices have SNMP agents that communicate with the SNMP manager where the SNMP management software runs.
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Question 32 of 39
32. Question
2 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devicesHint
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devices -
Question 33 of 39
33. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.
Hint
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.
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Question 34 of 39
34. Question
2 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devicesHint
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devices -
Question 35 of 39
35. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.
Hint
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.
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Question 36 of 39
36. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.
Hint
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.
-
Question 37 of 39
37. Question
2 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devicesHint
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devices -
Question 38 of 39
38. Question
2 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devicesHint
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a third party-system referred to as a certificate authority or CA. The PKI is the framework used to securely exchange information between parties. Common PKI applications are as follows:SSL/TLS certificate-based peer authentication
IPsec VPNs
HTTPS web traffic
network access control using 802.1x authentication
secure email using S/MIME
secure instant messaging
approve and authorize applications with Code signing
protect data with EFS
use two-factor authentication
secure USB storage devices -
Question 39 of 39
39. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Incorrect
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.
Hint
Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.