Last Updated on October 29, 2019 by Admin
CCNA CyberOps Final Exam Online 2019
CCNA CyberOps 1.1 -- Final Exam
Quiz-summary
0 of 60 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
Information
CCNA CyberOps 1.1 — Final Exam
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 60 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 60
1. Question
1 pointsWhat commonly motivates cybercriminals to attack networks as compared to hactivists or state-sponsored hackers?
Correct
Incorrect
Cybercriminals are commonly motivated by money. Hackers are known to hack for status. Cyberterrorists are motivated to commit cybercrimes for religious or political reasons.
Hint
Cybercriminals are commonly motivated by money. Hackers are known to hack for status. Cyberterrorists are motivated to commit cybercrimes for religious or political reasons.
-
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
1 pointsWhich scenario is probably the result of activities by a group of hacktivists?
Correct
Incorrect
Hacktivists are typically hackers who protest against a variety of political and social ideas. Hacktivists publicly protest against organizations or governments by posting articles and leaking sensitive information. Accessing school database and changing grades is probably made by a few script kiddies. Offers from someone to restore data for a hefty fee is a ransomware attack. Attacking the major power grid is typically conducted by a government.
Hint
Hacktivists are typically hackers who protest against a variety of political and social ideas. Hacktivists publicly protest against organizations or governments by posting articles and leaking sensitive information. Accessing school database and changing grades is probably made by a few script kiddies. Offers from someone to restore data for a hefty fee is a ransomware attack. Attacking the major power grid is typically conducted by a government.
-
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
3 pointsWhich three are major categories of elements in a security operations center? (Choose three.)
Correct
Incorrect
The three major categories of elements of a security operations center are people, processes, and technologies. A database engine, a data center, and an Internet connection are components in the technologies category.
Hint
The three major categories of elements of a security operations center are people, processes, and technologies. A database engine, a data center, and an Internet connection are components in the technologies category.
-
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
3 pointsWhich three technologies should be included in a security information and event management system in a SOC? (Choose three.)
Correct
Incorrect
Technologies in a SOC should include the following:Event collection, correlation, and analysis
Security monitoring
Security control
Log management
Vulnerability assessment
Vulnerability tracking
Threat intelligence
Firewall appliances, VPNs, and IPS are security devices deployed in the network infrastructure.Hint
Technologies in a SOC should include the following:Event collection, correlation, and analysis
Security monitoring
Security control
Log management
Vulnerability assessment
Vulnerability tracking
Threat intelligence
Firewall appliances, VPNs, and IPS are security devices deployed in the network infrastructure. -
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
1 pointsA network security professional has applied for a Tier 2 position in a SOC. What is a typical job function that would be assigned to a new employee?
Correct
Incorrect
In a typical SOC, the job of a Tier 2 incident responder involves deep investigation of security incidents.
Hint
In a typical SOC, the job of a Tier 2 incident responder involves deep investigation of security incidents.
-
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
2 pointsWhat are two advantages of the NTFS file system compared with FAT32? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
The file system has no control over the speed of access or formatting of drives, and the ease of configuration is not file system-dependent.
Hint
The file system has no control over the speed of access or formatting of drives, and the ease of configuration is not file system-dependent.
-
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
1 pointsA technician notices that an application is not responding to commands and that the computer seems to respond slowly when applications are opened. What is the best administrative tool to force the release of system resources from the unresponsive application?
Correct
Incorrect
Use the Task Manager Performance tab to see a visual representation of CPU and RAM utilization. This is helpful in determining if more memory is needed. Use the Applications tab to halt an application that is not responding.
Hint
Use the Task Manager Performance tab to see a visual representation of CPU and RAM utilization. This is helpful in determining if more memory is needed. Use the Applications tab to halt an application that is not responding.
-
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
1 pointsIn a networking class, the instructor tells the students to ping the other computers in the classroom from the command prompt. Why do all pings in the class fail?
Correct
Incorrect
Unsuccessful pings usually indicate a network problem which eliminates the virus option. In this case computers in the same classroom would also be on the same network. Port 25 is used used by the email SMTP protocol, not by ping.
Hint
Unsuccessful pings usually indicate a network problem which eliminates the virus option. In this case computers in the same classroom would also be on the same network. Port 25 is used used by the email SMTP protocol, not by ping.
-
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
2 pointsWhich two net commands are associated with network resource sharing? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
The net command is a very important command. Some common net commands include these:
- net accounts – sets password and logon requirements for users
- net session – lists or disconnects sessions between a computer and other computers on the network
- net share – creates, removes, or manages shared resources
- net start – starts a network service or lists running network services
- net stop – stops a network service
- net use – connects, disconnects, and displays information about shared network resources
- net view – shows a list of computers and network devices on the network
Hint
The net command is a very important command. Some common net commands include these:
- net accounts – sets password and logon requirements for users
- net session – lists or disconnects sessions between a computer and other computers on the network
- net share – creates, removes, or manages shared resources
- net start – starts a network service or lists running network services
- net stop – stops a network service
- net use – connects, disconnects, and displays information about shared network resources
- net view – shows a list of computers and network devices on the network
-
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
1 pointsWhy would a network administrator choose Linux as an operating system in the Security Operations Center (SOC)?
Correct
Incorrect
There are several reasons why Linux is a good choice for the SOC.Linux is open source.
The command line interface is a very powerful environment.
The user has more control over the operating system.
Linux allows for better network communication control.Hint
There are several reasons why Linux is a good choice for the SOC.Linux is open source.
The command line interface is a very powerful environment.
The user has more control over the operating system.
Linux allows for better network communication control. -
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
1 pointsWhich method can be used to harden a device?
Correct
Incorrect
The basic best practices for device hardening are as follows:
Ensure physical security.
Minimize installed packages.
Disable unused services.
Use SSH and disable the root account login over SSH.
Keep the system updated.
Disable USB auto-detection.
Enforce strong passwords.
Force periodic password changes.
Keep users from re-using old passwords.
Review logs regularly.Hint
The basic best practices for device hardening are as follows:
Ensure physical security.
Minimize installed packages.
Disable unused services.
Use SSH and disable the root account login over SSH.
Keep the system updated.
Disable USB auto-detection.
Enforce strong passwords.
Force periodic password changes.
Keep users from re-using old passwords.
Review logs regularly. -
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
1 pointsBased on the command output shown, which file permission or permissions have been assigned to the other user group for the data.txt file?
ls –l data.txt
-rwxrw-r– sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 data.txtCorrect
Incorrect
The file permissions are always displayed in the user, group and other order. In the example displayed, the file has the following permissions:
The dash (-) means that this is a file. For directories, the first dash would be replaced with a “d”.
The first set of characters is for user permission (rwx). The user, sales, who owns the file can read, write and execute the file.
The second set of characters is for group permissions (rw-). The group, staff, who owns the file can read and write to the file.
The third set of characters is for any other user or group permissions (r–). Any other user or group on the computer can only read the file.Hint
The file permissions are always displayed in the user, group and other order. In the example displayed, the file has the following permissions:
The dash (-) means that this is a file. For directories, the first dash would be replaced with a “d”.
The first set of characters is for user permission (rwx). The user, sales, who owns the file can read, write and execute the file.
The second set of characters is for group permissions (rw-). The group, staff, who owns the file can read and write to the file.
The third set of characters is for any other user or group permissions (r–). Any other user or group on the computer can only read the file. -
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
1 pointsWhich Linux command could be used to discover the process ID (PID) for a specific process before using the kill command?
Correct
Incorrect
The ps command is used before the kill command to discover the PID for the specific process. The kill command requires root privileges, but listing the processes that use the ps command does not.
Hint
The ps command is used before the kill command to discover the PID for the specific process. The kill command requires root privileges, but listing the processes that use the ps command does not.
-
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?
Correct
Incorrect
When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.
Hint
When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.
-
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
3 pointsWhat are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
Correct
Incorrect
The transport layer has several responsibilities. Some of the primary responsibilities include the following:
Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the source and destination hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the use of port numbers
Multiplexing the communications of multiple users or applications over a single network
Managing the reliability requirements of applicationsHint
The transport layer has several responsibilities. Some of the primary responsibilities include the following:
Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the source and destination hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the use of port numbers
Multiplexing the communications of multiple users or applications over a single network
Managing the reliability requirements of applications -
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
1 pointsWhich protocol translates a website name such as http://www.cisco.com into a network address?
Correct
Incorrect
Domain Name Service translates names into numerical addresses, and associates the two. DHCP provides IP addresses dynamically to pools of devices. HTTP delivers web pages to users. FTP manages file transfers.
Hint
Domain Name Service translates names into numerical addresses, and associates the two. DHCP provides IP addresses dynamically to pools of devices. HTTP delivers web pages to users. FTP manages file transfers.
-
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. A cybersecurity analyst is viewing captured packets forwarded on switch S1. Which device has the MAC address d8:cb:8a:5c:d5:8a?
Correct
Incorrect
The Wireshark capture is a DNS response from the DNS server to PC-A. Because the packet was captured on the LAN that the PC is on, router DG would have encapsulated the response packet from the ISP router into an Ethernet frame addressed to PC-A and forwarded the frame with the MAC address of PC-A as the destination.
Hint
The Wireshark capture is a DNS response from the DNS server to PC-A. Because the packet was captured on the LAN that the PC is on, router DG would have encapsulated the response packet from the ISP router into an Ethernet frame addressed to PC-A and forwarded the frame with the MAC address of PC-A as the destination.
-
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
2 pointsWhich two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
In addition to its roles as router, a typical SOHO wireless router acts as both a wireless access point and an Ethernet switch. RADIUS authentication is provided by an external server. A WLAN controller is used in enterprise deployments to manage groups of lightweight access points. A repeater is a device that enhances an incoming signal and retransmits it.
Hint
In addition to its roles as router, a typical SOHO wireless router acts as both a wireless access point and an Ethernet switch. RADIUS authentication is provided by an external server. A WLAN controller is used in enterprise deployments to manage groups of lightweight access points. A repeater is a device that enhances an incoming signal and retransmits it.
-
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. Which access list configuration on router R1 will prevent traffic from the 192.168.2.0 LAN from reaching the Restricted LAN while permitting traffic from any other LAN?
Correct
Incorrect
The correct access list syntax requires that the deny source IP address (192.168.2.0) statement come before the permit statement so that only traffic sourced from the 192.168.2.0 LAN is denied. Then the access list must be applied on interface G0/2 in the outbound direction.
Hint
The correct access list syntax requires that the deny source IP address (192.168.2.0) statement come before the permit statement so that only traffic sourced from the 192.168.2.0 LAN is denied. Then the access list must be applied on interface G0/2 in the outbound direction.
-
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
1 pointsWhich technique is necessary to ensure a private transfer of data using a VPN?
Correct
Incorrect
Confidential and secure transfers of data with VPNs require data encryption.
Hint
Confidential and secure transfers of data with VPNs require data encryption.
-
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
1 pointsHow is a source IP address used in a standard ACL?
Correct
Incorrect
The only filter that can be applied with a standard ACL is the source IP address. An extended ACL is used to filter on such traffic as the source IP address, destination IP address, type of traffic, and type of message.
Hint
The only filter that can be applied with a standard ACL is the source IP address. An extended ACL is used to filter on such traffic as the source IP address, destination IP address, type of traffic, and type of message.
-
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
1 pointsWhat is a function of SNMP?
Correct
Incorrect
SNMP is an application layer protocol that allows administrators to manage devices on the network by providing a messaging format for communication between network device managers and agents.
Hint
SNMP is an application layer protocol that allows administrators to manage devices on the network by providing a messaging format for communication between network device managers and agents.
-
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
2 pointsWhich two characteristics describe a worm? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
Worms are self-replicating pieces of software that consume bandwidth on a network as they propagate from system to system. They do not require a host application, unlike a virus. Viruses, on the other hand, carry executable malicious code which harms the target machine on which they reside.
Hint
Worms are self-replicating pieces of software that consume bandwidth on a network as they propagate from system to system. They do not require a host application, unlike a virus. Viruses, on the other hand, carry executable malicious code which harms the target machine on which they reside.
-
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
1 pointsWhich type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?
Correct
Incorrect
A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.
Hint
A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.
-
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
2 pointsWhich two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
The type of end user interaction required to launch a virus is typically opening an application, opening a web page, or powering on the computer. Once activated, a virus may infect other files located on the computer or other computers on the same network.
Hint
The type of end user interaction required to launch a virus is typically opening an application, opening a web page, or powering on the computer. Once activated, a virus may infect other files located on the computer or other computers on the same network.
-
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
2 pointsWhich two statements describe access attacks? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
An access attack tries to gain access to a resource using a hijacked account or other means. The five types of access attacks include the following:password – a dictionary is used for repeated login attempts
trust exploitation – uses granted privileges to access unauthorized material
port redirection – uses a compromised internal host to pass traffic through a firewall
man-in-the-middle – an unauthorized device positioned between two legitimate devices in order to redirect or capture traffic
buffer overflow – too much data sent to a memory location that already contains dataHint
An access attack tries to gain access to a resource using a hijacked account or other means. The five types of access attacks include the following:password – a dictionary is used for repeated login attempts
trust exploitation – uses granted privileges to access unauthorized material
port redirection – uses a compromised internal host to pass traffic through a firewall
man-in-the-middle – an unauthorized device positioned between two legitimate devices in order to redirect or capture traffic
buffer overflow – too much data sent to a memory location that already contains data -
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
2 pointsWhat are two evasion techniques that are used by hackers? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
The following methods are used by hackers to avoid detection:Encryption and tunneling – hide or scramble the malware content
Resource exhaustion – keeps the host device too busy to detect the invasion
Traffic fragmentation – splits the malware into multiple packets
Protocol-level misinterpretation – sneaks by the firewall
Pivot – uses a compromised network device to attempt access to another device
Rootkit – allows the hacker to be undetected and hides software installed by the hackerHint
The following methods are used by hackers to avoid detection:Encryption and tunneling – hide or scramble the malware content
Resource exhaustion – keeps the host device too busy to detect the invasion
Traffic fragmentation – splits the malware into multiple packets
Protocol-level misinterpretation – sneaks by the firewall
Pivot – uses a compromised network device to attempt access to another device
Rootkit – allows the hacker to be undetected and hides software installed by the hacker -
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
1 pointsWhat is a network tap?
Correct
Incorrect
A network tap is used to capture traffic for monitoring the network. The tap is typically a passive splitting device implemented inline on the network and forwards all traffic, including physical layer errors, to an analysis device.
Hint
A network tap is used to capture traffic for monitoring the network. The tap is typically a passive splitting device implemented inline on the network and forwards all traffic, including physical layer errors, to an analysis device.
-
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. A network administrator is showing a junior network engineer some output on the server. Which service would have to be enabled on the server to receive such output?
Correct
Incorrect
The Simple Network Management Protocol is used by network devices to send and log messages to a syslog server in order to monitor traffic and network device events. The syslog service must be enabled on the server or a syslog server application must be installed in order to receive such traffic.
Hint
The Simple Network Management Protocol is used by network devices to send and log messages to a syslog server in order to monitor traffic and network device events. The syslog service must be enabled on the server or a syslog server application must be installed in order to receive such traffic.
-
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
1 pointsHow do cybercriminals make use of a malicious iFrame?
Correct
Incorrect
An inline frame or iFrame is an HTML element that allows the browser to load a different web page from another source.
Hint
An inline frame or iFrame is an HTML element that allows the browser to load a different web page from another source.
-
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
1 pointsWhich device in a layered defense-in-depth approach denies connections initiated from untrusted networks to internal networks, but allows internal users within an organization to connect to untrusted networks?
Correct
Incorrect
A firewall is typically a second line of defense in a layered defense-in-depth approach to network security. The firewall typically connects to an edge router that connects to the service provider. The firewall tracks connections initiated within the company going out of the company and denies initiation of connections from external untrusted networks going to internal trusted networks.
Hint
A firewall is typically a second line of defense in a layered defense-in-depth approach to network security. The firewall typically connects to an edge router that connects to the service provider. The firewall tracks connections initiated within the company going out of the company and denies initiation of connections from external untrusted networks going to internal trusted networks.
-
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
1 pointsBecause of implemented security controls, a user can only access a server with FTP. Which AAA component accomplishes this?
Correct
Incorrect
One of the components in AAA is authorization. After a user is authenticated through AAA, authorization services determine which resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform.
Hint
One of the components in AAA is authorization. After a user is authenticated through AAA, authorization services determine which resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform.
-
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
1 pointsWhich statement identifies an important difference between the TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols?
Correct
Incorrect
One key difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols is that TACACS+ provides flexibility by separating authentication and authorization processes. RADIUS, on the other hand, combines authentication and authorization as one process.
Hint
One key difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols is that TACACS+ provides flexibility by separating authentication and authorization processes. RADIUS, on the other hand, combines authentication and authorization as one process.
-
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
2 pointsA company implements a security policy that ensures that a file sent from the headquarters office to the branch office can only be opened with a predetermined code. This code is changed every day. Which two algorithms can be used to achieve this task? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
The task to ensure that only authorized personnel can open a file is data confidentiality, which can be implemented with encryption. AES and 3DES are two encryption algorithms. HMAC can be used for ensuring origin authentication. MD5 and SHA-1 can be used to ensure data integrity.
Hint
The task to ensure that only authorized personnel can open a file is data confidentiality, which can be implemented with encryption. AES and 3DES are two encryption algorithms. HMAC can be used for ensuring origin authentication. MD5 and SHA-1 can be used to ensure data integrity.
-
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
1 pointsIn which situation is an asymmetric key algorithm used?
Correct
Incorrect
The SSH protocol uses an asymmetric key algorithm to authenticate users and encrypt data transmitted. The SSH server generates a pair of public/private keys for the connections. Encrypting files before saving them to a storage device uses a symmetric key algorithm because the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt files. The router authentication with CHAP uses a symmetric key algorithm. The key is pre-configured by the network administrator. A VPN may use both an asymmetric key and a symmetric encryption algorithm. For example in an IPSec VPN implementation, the data transmission uses a shared secret (generated with an asymmetric key algorithm) with a symmetric encryption algorithm used for performance.
Hint
The SSH protocol uses an asymmetric key algorithm to authenticate users and encrypt data transmitted. The SSH server generates a pair of public/private keys for the connections. Encrypting files before saving them to a storage device uses a symmetric key algorithm because the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt files. The router authentication with CHAP uses a symmetric key algorithm. The key is pre-configured by the network administrator. A VPN may use both an asymmetric key and a symmetric encryption algorithm. For example in an IPSec VPN implementation, the data transmission uses a shared secret (generated with an asymmetric key algorithm) with a symmetric encryption algorithm used for performance.
-
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
1 pointsWhat is a difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms?
Correct
Incorrect
Asymmetric algorithms can use very long key lengths in order to avoid being hacked. This results in the use of significantly increased resources and time compared to symmetric algorithms.
Hint
Asymmetric algorithms can use very long key lengths in order to avoid being hacked. This results in the use of significantly increased resources and time compared to symmetric algorithms.
-
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
1 pointsWhy is Diffie-Hellman algorithm typically avoided for encrypting data?
Correct
Incorrect
Diffie-Hellman (DH) is an asymmetric mathematical algorithm that is too slow for encrypting large amounts of data. The longer key length and complexity of DH make it ideal for generating the keys used by symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms typically encrypt the data, whereas DH creates the keys they use.
Hint
Diffie-Hellman (DH) is an asymmetric mathematical algorithm that is too slow for encrypting large amounts of data. The longer key length and complexity of DH make it ideal for generating the keys used by symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms typically encrypt the data, whereas DH creates the keys they use.
-
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
2 pointsWhat two assurances does digital signing provide about code that is downloaded from the Internet? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
Digitally signing code provides several assurances about the code:
The code is authentic and is actually sourced by the publisher.
The code has not been modified since it left the software publisher.
The publisher undeniably published the code. This provides nonrepudiation of the act of publishing.Hint
Digitally signing code provides several assurances about the code:
The code is authentic and is actually sourced by the publisher.
The code has not been modified since it left the software publisher.
The publisher undeniably published the code. This provides nonrepudiation of the act of publishing. -
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
1 pointsWhich technology might increase the security challenge to the implementation of IoT in an enterprise environment?
Correct
Incorrect
With cloud computing, boundaries of enterprise networks are expanded to include locations on the Internet for which the enterprises are not responsible. Malicious software might access the internal network endpoints to attack internal networks.
Hint
With cloud computing, boundaries of enterprise networks are expanded to include locations on the Internet for which the enterprises are not responsible. Malicious software might access the internal network endpoints to attack internal networks.
-
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
1 pointsWhich statement describes the policy-based intrusion detection approach?
Correct
Incorrect
With the anomaly-based intrusion detection approach, a set of rules or policies are applied to a host. Violation of these policies is interpreted to be the result of a potential intrusion.
Hint
With the anomaly-based intrusion detection approach, a set of rules or policies are applied to a host. Violation of these policies is interpreted to be the result of a potential intrusion.
-
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
1 pointsAs described by the SANS Institute, which attack surface includes the use of social engineering?
Correct
Incorrect
The SANS Institute describes three components of the attack surface:
- Network Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in networks
- Software Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in web, cloud, or host-based software applications
- Human Attack Surface – exploitation of weaknesses in user behavior
Hint
The SANS Institute describes three components of the attack surface:
- Network Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in networks
- Software Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in web, cloud, or host-based software applications
- Human Attack Surface – exploitation of weaknesses in user behavior
-
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
1 pointsWhich metric class in the CVSS Basic Metric Group identifies the impacts on confidentiality, integrity, and availability?
Correct
Incorrect
The Base Metric Group of CVSS represents the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across contexts. It contains two classes of metrics:Exploitability metrics – features of the exploit such as the vector, complexity, and user interaction required by the exploit
Impact metrics – the impacts of the exploit rooted in the CIA triad of confidentiality, integrity, and availabilityHint
The Base Metric Group of CVSS represents the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across contexts. It contains two classes of metrics:Exploitability metrics – features of the exploit such as the vector, complexity, and user interaction required by the exploit
Impact metrics – the impacts of the exploit rooted in the CIA triad of confidentiality, integrity, and availability -
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
1 pointsHow might DNS be used by a threat actor to create mayhem?
Correct
Incorrect
Malware could be used by a threat actor to collect stolen encoded data, decode it, and then gain access to corporate data such as a username/password database.
Hint
Malware could be used by a threat actor to collect stolen encoded data, decode it, and then gain access to corporate data such as a username/password database.
-
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
1 pointsWhat is the result of using security devices that include HTTPS decryption and inspection services?
Correct
Incorrect
HTTPS adds extra overhead to the HTTP-formed packet. HTTPS encrypts using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Even though some devices can perform SSL decryption and inspection, this can present processing and privacy issues.
Hint
HTTPS adds extra overhead to the HTTP-formed packet. HTTPS encrypts using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Even though some devices can perform SSL decryption and inspection, this can present processing and privacy issues.
-
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
1 pointsWhich Windows Event Viewer log includes events regarding the operation of drivers, processes, and hardware?
Correct
Incorrect
By default Windows keeps four types of host logs:
- Application logs – events logged by various applications
- System logs – events about the operation of drivers, processes, and hardware
- Setup logs – information about the installation of software, including Windows updates
- Security logs – events related to security, such as logon attempts and operations related to file or object management and access
Hint
By default Windows keeps four types of host logs:
- Application logs – events logged by various applications
- System logs – events about the operation of drivers, processes, and hardware
- Setup logs – information about the installation of software, including Windows updates
- Security logs – events related to security, such as logon attempts and operations related to file or object management and access
-
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
2 pointsWhich two services are provided by the NetFlow tool? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
NetFlow efficiently provides an important set of services for IP applications including network traffic accounting, usage-based network billing, network planning, security, denial of service monitoring capabilities, and network monitoring.
Hint
NetFlow efficiently provides an important set of services for IP applications including network traffic accounting, usage-based network billing, network planning, security, denial of service monitoring capabilities, and network monitoring.
-
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. A network administrator is viewing some output on the Netflow collector. What can be determined from the output of the traffic flow shown?
Correct
Incorrect
The traffic flow shown has a source port of 53 and a destination port of 1025. Port 53 is used for DNS and because the source port is 53, this traffic is responding to a client machine from a DNS server. The IP PROTOCOL is 17 and specifies that UDP is being used and the TCP flag is set to 0.
Hint
The traffic flow shown has a source port of 53 and a destination port of 1025. Port 53 is used for DNS and because the source port is 53, this traffic is responding to a client machine from a DNS server. The IP PROTOCOL is 17 and specifies that UDP is being used and the TCP flag is set to 0.
-
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
1 pointsRefer to the exhibit. A network security specialist issues the command tcpdump to capture events. What does the number 6337 indicate?
Correct
Incorrect
After the tcpdump command is issued, the device displays the message, [1] 6337. The message indicates that the process with PID 6337was sent to the background.
Hint
After the tcpdump command is issued, the device displays the message, [1] 6337. The message indicates that the process with PID 6337was sent to the background.
-
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
1 pointsWhat is indicated by a true negative security alert classification?
Correct
Incorrect
True negative classifications are desirable because they indicate that normal traffic is correctly not being identified as malicious traffic by security measures.
Hint
True negative classifications are desirable because they indicate that normal traffic is correctly not being identified as malicious traffic by security measures.
-
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
1 pointsWhich type of data would be considered an example of volatile data?
Correct
Incorrect
Volatile data is data stored in memory such as registers, cache, and RAM, or it is data that exists in transit. Volatile memory is lost when the computer loses power.
Hint
Volatile data is data stored in memory such as registers, cache, and RAM, or it is data that exists in transit. Volatile memory is lost when the computer loses power.
-
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
1 pointsAccording to NIST, which step in the digital forensics process involves preparing and presenting information that resulted from scrutinizing data?
Correct
Incorrect
NIST describes the digital forensics process as involving the following four steps:
- Collection – the identification of potential sources of forensic data and acquisition, handling, and storage of that data
- Examination – assessing and extracting relevant information from the collected data. This may involve decompression or decryption of the data
- Analysis – drawing conclusions from the data. Salient features, such as people, places, times, events, and so on should be documented
- Reporting – preparing and presenting information that resulted from the analysis. Reporting should be impartial and alternative explanations should be offered if appropriate
Hint
NIST describes the digital forensics process as involving the following four steps:
- Collection – the identification of potential sources of forensic data and acquisition, handling, and storage of that data
- Examination – assessing and extracting relevant information from the collected data. This may involve decompression or decryption of the data
- Analysis – drawing conclusions from the data. Salient features, such as people, places, times, events, and so on should be documented
- Reporting – preparing and presenting information that resulted from the analysis. Reporting should be impartial and alternative explanations should be offered if appropriate
-
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
1 pointsWhy would threat actors prefer to use a zero-day attack in the Cyber Kill Chain weaponization phase?
Correct
Incorrect
When a threat actor prepares a weapon for an attack, the threat actor chooses an automated tool (weaponizer) that can be deployed through discovered vulnerabilities. Malware that will carry desired attacks is then built into the tool as the payload. The weapon (tool plus malware payload) will be delivered to the target system. By using a zero-day weaponizer, the threat actor hopes that the weapon will not be detected because it is unknown to security professionals and detection methods are not yet developed.
Hint
When a threat actor prepares a weapon for an attack, the threat actor chooses an automated tool (weaponizer) that can be deployed through discovered vulnerabilities. Malware that will carry desired attacks is then built into the tool as the payload. The weapon (tool plus malware payload) will be delivered to the target system. By using a zero-day weaponizer, the threat actor hopes that the weapon will not be detected because it is unknown to security professionals and detection methods are not yet developed.
-
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
2 pointsWhat are two advantages of using the community VERIS database? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
The VERIS community database (VCDB) is open and free to the public. The VCDB uses metrics to describe incidents in a structured and repeatable way, thus allowing for data manipulation.
Hint
The VERIS community database (VCDB) is open and free to the public. The VCDB uses metrics to describe incidents in a structured and repeatable way, thus allowing for data manipulation.
-
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
1 pointsA threat actor has gained administrative access to a system and achieved the goal of controlling the system for a future DDoS attack by establishing a communication channel with a CnC owned by the threat actor. Which phase in the Cyber Kill Chain model describes the situation?
Correct
Incorrect
The Cyber Kill Chain specifies seven steps (or phases) and sequences that a threat actor must complete to accomplish an attack:
- Reconnaissance – The threat actor performs research, gathers intelligence, and selects targets.
- Weaponization – The threat actor uses the information from the reconnaissance phase to develop a weapon against specific targeted systems.
- Delivery – The weapon is transmitted to the target using a delivery vector.
- Exploitation – The threat actor uses the weapon delivered to break the vulnerability and gain control of the target.
- Installation – The threat actor establishes a back door into the system to allow for continued access to the target.
- Command and Control (CnC) – The threat actor establish command and control (CnC) with the target system.
- Action on Objectives – The threat actor is able to take action on the target system, thus achieving the original objective.
Hint
The Cyber Kill Chain specifies seven steps (or phases) and sequences that a threat actor must complete to accomplish an attack:
- Reconnaissance – The threat actor performs research, gathers intelligence, and selects targets.
- Weaponization – The threat actor uses the information from the reconnaissance phase to develop a weapon against specific targeted systems.
- Delivery – The weapon is transmitted to the target using a delivery vector.
- Exploitation – The threat actor uses the weapon delivered to break the vulnerability and gain control of the target.
- Installation – The threat actor establishes a back door into the system to allow for continued access to the target.
- Command and Control (CnC) – The threat actor establish command and control (CnC) with the target system.
- Action on Objectives – The threat actor is able to take action on the target system, thus achieving the original objective.
-
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
1 pointsWhat is the responsibility of the human resources department when handling a security incident?
Correct
Incorrect
The human resources department may be called upon to perform disciplinary measures if an incident is caused by an employee.
Hint
The human resources department may be called upon to perform disciplinary measures if an incident is caused by an employee.
-
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
4 pointsMatch the phase in the NIST incident response life cycle to the action.
Sort elements
- Document incident handling.
- Conduct CSIRT response training.
- Identify, analyze, and validate an incident.
- Implement procedures to contain the threat.
-
post-incident actvities
-
preparation
-
detection and analysis
-
containment, eradication, and recovery
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
4 pointsMatch the alert classification with the description.
Sort elements
- malicious traffic is correctly identified as a threat
- normal traffic is incorrectly identified as a threat
- malicious traffic is not identified as a threat
- normal traffic is not identified as a threat
-
true positive
-
false positive
-
false negative
-
true negative
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
4 pointsMatch the common network technology or protocol with the description. (Not all options are used.)
Sort elements
- uses a hierarchy of authoritative time sources to send time information between devices on the network
- used by attackers to exfiltrate data in traffic disguised as normal client queries
- uses UDP port 514 for logging event messages from network devices and endpoints
- used by attackers to identify hosts on a network and the structure of the network
- uses application protocols that are commonly responsible for bringing malware to a host
-
NTP
-
DNS
-
Syslog
-
ICMP
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
3 pointsMatch the information security component with the description.
Sort elements
- Only authorized individuals, entities, or processes can access sensitive information.
- Data is protected from unauthorized alteration.
- Authorized users must have uninterrupted access to important resources and data.
-
confidentiality
-
integrity
-
availability
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
4 pointsMatch the network profile element to the description. (Not all options are used.)
Sort elements
- a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
- the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
- the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
- the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
- the types of traffic that typically enter and leave the network
-
ports used
-
critical asset address space
-
session duration
-
total throughput
Correct
Incorrect
Important elements of a network profile include:
- Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
- Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
- Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
- Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
Hint
Important elements of a network profile include:
- Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
- Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
- Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
- Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data